It’s All Greek To Me
Posted in Bible Study, Christianity on March 1st, 2007 11 Comments »
I have a rule of thumb when listening to a sermon. If the pastor or minister starts talking about how the original Greek of a passage says something other than what our translation says, then he does not know what he is talking about!
Before I completely offend everyone who has ever delivered a sermon before, perhaps I should go into some more detail.
My point is that one often hears sermons in which the preacher digresses into a discussion of why one Greek word was used over another. I think such digressions are always questionable, and often completely wrong. At best, I will look up the passage in a good commentary later to see what others have said about the subject, but often I ignore such points made.
But what if the different versions of the Bible translate differently? A case in point might be 1 Corinthians 7, where my RSV and other literal translations say “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”, but the NIV jumps to “it is good for a man not to marry”, and other versions say “it is good for a man not to have sexual relations”. What do we make of this jumble of interpretations?
I think we can note several things:
Firstly, the difficulty of the passage is demonstrated by the disagreement of Bible translators on the point. We can see the disagreement from the English translations. No need for Greek yet.
Secondly, if the translators cannot agree, then a basic competance in Greek is probably not going to help much. Appeal to the Greek text in this case reveals that the literal translations (KJV, RSV, NASB etc.) are indeed translating literally. The passage does indeed say “it is good for a man not to touch a woman”.
Now a commentary can be of great assistance here, because appeal to a commentary will show that the term “to touch a woman” was a first century idiom that referred to sexual relations. When learning a language, one must learn many idioms before one can gain fluency in the language (One of my favourites is the Welsh “dros ben llestri”, which is idiomatic for “over the top” - although literally it is translated as “over the head of the dishes”!).
Armed with this information about the idiom (the Greek one now, not the Welsh one!), we are able to do an exegesis of the passage, without appeal to the Greek words used.
However, I can envisage examples where one might wish to quote what the commentators say about the original Greek. In such circumstances, I think the quote should be properly referenced.
If a preacher says “the original Greek actually suggests this…” I will assume the preacher is working on their own knowledge (and probably out of their depth). If they say “Barret tells us, in his commentary on 1 Corinthians, that the original Greek form used was an idiom for this…” then I can evaluate the quality of the source of the information, and even check it out for myself later - an important stage in the process of critical appraisal of the information we receive.
So I am not actually saying we can never preach on what the original Greek says - but as most preachers are not experts in Koine Greek, we must acknowledge our sources and alternative interpretations when we do so.
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